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Hi everyone,

I faced this problem in an old book (Hall Allen S., Theory and Problems of Machine Design; 1961) 

the answer is according to the book 592 [in.lb]

but I think the bending moment should be 0 because there is no constraints.

Could anybody help me to understand this?

(the photo is attached)

biegung.JPG

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Dear Sir,

I have posted a solution for this problem over at my blog, Mechanics Corner. Please take a look at that and see if you agree.

DrD

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Dear Sir,
I've just read your solution and I am amazed by the comprehensive explanation. That's a big help for me and I am very thankful.
As you suggested, I'd be still trying to figure out the reason for the difference in the final results.

I had already posted this question also in https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/36539/bending-moment-when-there-are-no-constraints/. May I post your solution there? (of course with reference and the link to your blog)

thank you so much

sincerely,

Negar

 

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Dear Negar,

Sure, you can re-post the solution anywhere you want with the proper citation.

I would appreciate it if you would post a comment on the blog regarding the solution. I think it helps encourage others to read the blog if they see that someone has already left a comment.

DrD

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